Connecticut and Delaware allow nonresident voting in municipal or town elections. Those include Arizona, Arkansas, California, Colorado, Connecticut, Delaware, Nebraska, New Mexico, Oregon, Tennessee (as you mentioned), and Wyoming. However, only eleven states have statutes that permit nonresidents, such as second-home owners or business owners, to vote in local, municipal, and/or special district elections such as irrigation, water, sewer and conservancy districts. That doesn’t mean they get to vote in those states unless they spend a certain amount of time I do understand where you are coming from and I don’t deny what you are saying is true for you. Loads of rich people own properties in various states. That would be problematic because then theoretically his in-laws would have to show that they either rent the home from him or are renting to buy so they can meet the residency requirements to vote. That would mean it was in his name and not theirs. I highly doubt he owns his in-laws’ home. There would be no need to use somebody else’s mailing address to obtain a ballot if he had his own. If you request a mail in ballot all you have to do is provide an address that meets the requirements of residency. Under PA law if you request an absentee ballot you have to not only prove residence but you have to provide a reason as to why you will not be in the state on the day of the election. Unless he can prove that he lives with his in-laws at that address he used a loophole to vote there. He used their mailing address to obtain a mail in ballot. He and his immediate family live in New Jersey.

He did not have residence in the state of PA when he voted.

Another word for running total